I have read Larkin’s Dispensational Truth (1918) more than once and I reference it often. I understand his definitions and descriptions of dispensationalism as periods of time. More specifically, “a ‘DISPENSATION’ stands for a ‘moral’ or ‘probationary’ period in the world’s history.” However, he gets there by going beyond the words of the King James Bible – the Final Authority. He changes “world” to “age”
From his own words, “All the confusion about the ‘Ages,’ ‘Dispensations,’ and ‘End of the World’ is largely due to the mistranslation [now THERE is a red flag!] of two Greek words in the New Testament.”
More from Larkin: “The second word is ‘Aion’ and means ‘Age,’ ‘Dispensation,’ ‘Indefinite Time.’ It occurs 28 times, and is also translated ‘World.'”
Notice how he slips “dispensation” into this definition? Here is “aion” from Strong’s: “aion ‘ahee-ohn’ from the same as 104; properly, an age; by extension, perpetuity (also past); by implication, the world; specially (Jewish) a Messianic period (present or future):–age, course, eternal, (for) ever(-more), (n-)ever, (beginning of the , while the) world (began, without end).”
No “dispensation” mentioned.
It certainly appears to me that, on this issue of “dispensationalism,” Larkin is incorrect. The KJB defines itself – and “dispensation” is a distribution (a “dispensing”), not a period of time.
Ephesians 3:2 “If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward.”
“Dispensationalism” is exactly this – the dispensation, or dispensing, of the grace of God. It has nothing to do with a period of time, unless you believe that God dispenses His grace differently during different periods of time (which Larkin does).
The LORD does not dispense time, He dispenses grace.
If you do not believe that God dispenses grace differently, then there would be only one dispensation across all time periods. There could be no divisions. All of human history would be one, singular dispensation of grace.
The other mentions of “dispensation” in the Bible are as follows:
1 Cor. 9:17 “For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.”
Is there a “time period of the gospel”? No. A dispensation is a dispensing or distribution, not a time period.
Col. 1:25 “Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;”
Just two verses prior (v. 23), Paul writes, “if ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;”
Thus, the “dispensation of God” in Colossians 1:25 is not a period of time, but a “dispensation (distribution) of God” via the gospel resulting in adding (the result of distribution) to the body of Christ, “which is the church” (v. 24).
The fourth and final “dispensation” is in Eph. 1:25, “That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:”
The “fulness of times” is a period of time, but it is the object of the dispensing, not the dispensation itself. It is the distribution of the final judgment of the Church – the Judgment Seat of Christ.
Dispensation of grace.
Dispensation of the gospel – witnessing.
Dispensation of God – the body of Christ.
Dispensation of the fulness of times – judgment.
None are periods of time. Please stop teaching dispensations as periods of time.
Back to what I said earlier – if you claim to be a “dispensationalist” and reject that God’s dispensing of grace is different, then you are not a “dispensationalist” in the classic sense. You would have to say that there is only one dispensation of grace. Period. Therefore, the “time period” argument is a red herring for the “dispensationalist” who does not believe in different dispensations like grace through faith alone in the “Church age” and grace through faith and works under the “law,” because there are no “dispensational” time periods.
The Old Testament, New Testament, Church Age, Jewish Age, Millennial Age, etc. are all one dispensation. That is what you MUST believe if God dispensed grace by faith alone from Genesis 1 to Revelation 22 and beyond.
I am not advocating one way or another here. I am merely pointing out the common misunderstanding of “dispensations” that seems to have led to a LOT of confusion. I have also learned and repeated Larkin’s definition over the years, trusting his scholarship.
I am certainly not on his level in that regard, but I do believe the words of my King James Bible not only supersede any replacements due to a “mistranslation” (because I believe my Bible is perfectly translated as God intended), but that the Bible does a great job of defining itself. One need not to even consult the Greek or Hebrew, because the King James English is fully sufficient.
What say you? Is Larkin correct or is my understanding correct? What does the Bible say with regard to dispensation(s) (by the way, the plural is NEVER used)? Can you be a “dispensationalist” only believing in one distribution method of grace?
Simmons' Opinions 