Interesting. Genesis 22:8 (KJV) “God will provide himself a lamb” and (MEV) “God will provide for himself the lamb”.
The King James leaves a double meaning; the lamb will be provided for God AND God will become the lamb himself.
Isaac was to be sacrificed, but God decided to provide the lamb that would take his place.
Modern English Version strips away the reference to the sacrifice of God in the form of Jesus Christ as our scapegoat.
The MEV removes the deity of Christ here. This is not the only offense.
John 1:14; 18
Differences: MEV says Only Son (God has many sons; Adam, angels, fallen angels in Gen. 6) vs KJV’s only begotten (Greek: Monogene…also used in John 3:16, where MEV used begotten. Why? More familiar passage? Seems shady.) To removed begotten is to remove Christ’s deity and puts him on the same level as the angels.
The worst offender (that I have found so far) is Philippians 2:6
Differences: MEV: Jesus Christ “did not consider equality with God something to be grasped” (He could not grasp equality with God…HE IS GOD!) vs KJV: “thought it not robbery to be equal with God” (Jesus had no problem with being equal with God…HE IS GOD!) This is opposite. It is contradictory. It is WRONG!
When dealing with the Word of God, we need 100% doctrinal accuracy in our translations. If our “Bible” contradicts doctrine, then it is as valuable as a boat with a hole in it. You may not take on a ton of water at first, but you will still end up drowning.
What is Scripture?
Must be 1. God breathed 2. Written down 3. Preserved
Ex. Christ writing in the sand = Inspired and written, but not preserved.
If the KJV, which has been written and preserved for over 400 years is not Inspired, then it is not Scripture.
If the KJV is not Scripture, then the English speaking peoples have been without the Word of God for centuries!
The first two sins:
Eve removed a Word of God (Gen 3:2; “freely” in Gen 2:16-17)
Eve added to the Word of God (“touch” in Gen 3:3; Gen 2:16-17)
Last warning of the Bible:
Rev 22: 18-19
The MEV removed “begotten” from KJV AND TEXTUS RECEPTUS (and there are many other examples of the same.
How Important is God’s Word?
Ps. 138:2; 119:9, 11, 105
If a “baby Christian” is getting the wrong WORDS, then how can they be a lamp? How can they be hid in a heart?
Can anyone argue the “fruits” of the KJV?
Regardless of which texts were inspired in other languages and throughout history, which is inspired NOW!
Do we have God’s inspired, infallible, preserved Word NOW? If so, what is it?
If my KJV and MEV (or any translation) contradict, then one MUST be more accurate than the other. By removing the deity of Christ in even one single verse (there are several), the MEV violates doctrine. It is corrupt.
Simmons' Opinions 